The question my former employer had to answer is whether there a gap in my three years of training. I feel that since my leave was not official but using allotted sick days it should not be listed as gap. I am unsure if I have any legal basis to insist that she not write I had an official gap as this will raise questions every time I go through credentialing in the future.
And yes, I think that the characterization can be interpreted in negative way, as writing there was medical leave for 'personal reasons' raised an inquiry by the new employer as to what was my medical condition and reason for the leave. I am concerned that I may be discriminated against for my history of depression. I am wondering what she is allowed to say regarding the nature of the medical leave. Thank you.
What I found discordant is that when my former employer filled out the paperwork she listed my use of sick days as a "leave of absence", but made absolutely no documentation of the three months FMLA maternity leave I took. I feel like if she is going to insist on listing all absences that she should at least be consistent and note both or none.
Also, in my case the future employer did ask for "clarification" of the personal medical reason for which I was out. It sounds as if what you are saying is that I should just say I had a medical leave and no more is this correct? I am concerned that if I said that they legally cannot ask me the nature of my illness that they won't hire me. Thanks.
Thank you this if very helpful.
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