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I'm not sure why it contravenes ohms law. The resistances in each bulb are different.
What is your theory? Then maybe I can help you out.
Please let me know so that we can continue.
I understand that the resistances are different,and I was out of line to question ohms law, but my question is why is the output different, being that both bulbs use the same energy (100w). only the volts and amps are a different mix because of the necessary change in resistance.
Are the bulbs the same brand and type? Manufacturers are going to write whatever they want on the packaging. If company A makes a 1300 lumen lamp you can bet that that company B is going to make one with 1400 lumens.
when we googled 100w incadescent light bulb lumens, those were the approximate figures that was quoted for the two voltages, the 120v being generally about 300 lumens above the 230v. Maybe you can check on google yourself to see what I mean. Also is the american Volage exactly half european voltage? Our voltage is set at 233v
So, to clarify and bring this debate to a conclusion. are you saying that the available voltage has no material effect on the lumen output? Am I also to understand that it is the coating on the bulb, the type of manufacture, and the particular design, bearing in mind that 100w is a target, not a bullseye, and that manufacturers can be 'creative' in their lumen output? I would appreciate your clarification on these questions, so that this discussion can be 'put to bed' once and for all! I appreciate your patience in this matter, and will mark you accordingly! I have more meaty questions coming up soon!