Hello from JustAnswer.
The appearance of the sores could be herpes, but it is not definitely herpes. When I try to zoom in on the lesions, the image become blurry/pixelated. A couple of the lesions does look more like molluscum contagiosum, but it is not true for all of the lesions, although if the lesions were picked at, they could have developed into this appearance.
If it is herpes, it would be a primary infection. It would be unusual for a primary herpes infection to arise 9 year after an exposure. It is possible that someone can have periodic shedding of the virus without other symptoms, and then only have a noticeable sore 9 years later, but a primary infection would be very unusual 9 years later. If your wife had an exposure before you were in a monogamous relationship, it is possible that she has been having intermittent shedding from which you did not get infected and only developed a primary infection 9 years later.
I would note that studies that look at the risk of transmission of herpes in couples in which only one person is infected is about 5% per year, if the only intervention is to only have sex on days on which the infected person does not have symptoms. So, it would not be unusual for it to take 9 years for the uninfected partner to have a primary infection. At 9 years, the majority of the original uninfected partners would still be uninfected.
If I can provide any information or clarification, please let me know. If you can take a better picture of the sores that will allow zooming in on the picture, particularly the sore on image4, then I can make more comments.