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No. Such a law would be unconstitutional. Perhaps a private gated community could, but a town could not. Moreover, even if it could, there would be no legal way to enforce such a law. Police may not stop and demand ID for no reason.
Thanks for your questions.
HelloThis is Samuel and I will discuss this and provide you information in this regard.Without it being a bona fide "gated community", I suggest that such restrictions would be unconstitutional.
The First Amendment of the Constitution of the United States which provides for rights of free speech and assembly.
No governmental body may prohibit anyone from ringing someone else's doorbell at any time for any legitimate purpose, nor may the government prohibit anyone from giving “treats” to visitors at any time. Simply put, the residents of Texas and all states have the Constitutional right to ring doorbells on any date and time they choose asking for treats, and all have the right to receive visitors and give them treats at any time.
Please let me know if you have other questions in this regard. Keep in mind, I can only answer and provide information for what you ask. I do not know what you need to know, unless you tell me. Please rate positive as this is how I get credit for my time and information.Thank you
Thank youIf a home owner would like to put up a no solicitation or no trespassing sign they can do that.
And it would be their prerogative to allow someone then on their property or not. But there should not be any laws or ordinances to that effect, unless the HOA is a gate one and the No Trespassing/No Solicitation signs are posted on the gates to entry.
At that point, it would be considered private property and something the HOA members agreed upon.
And it is not my interpretation of the 1st Amendment. The Supreme Court of the United States has repeatedly ruled that while many local laws that restrict solicitation are unconstitutional, privately posted signs are a legitimate way to tell salespeople to leave you alone. In the words of one Supreme Court opinion, “The Court has traditionally respected the right of a householder to bar, by order or notice, solicitors, hawkers, and peddlers from his property.”
The Court has traditionally respected the right of a householder to bar, by order or notice, solicitors, hawkers, and peddlers from his property. See Martin v. City of Struthers, supra; cf. Hall v. Commonwealth, 188 Va. 72, 49 S.E.2d 369, appeal dismissed, 335 U.S. 875, 69 S.Ct. 240, 93 L.Ed. 418 (1948). In this case the mailer's right to communicate is circumscribed only by an affirmative act of the addressee giving notice that he wishes no further mailings from that mailer.AND so while this pertains to the mailing of solicitation material, it holds true for any such solicitations. The point being, a homeowner can make the decision, but lawmakers shall not.I don't want to get to involved as not to confuse you. But for the courts, the premise is the same whether they are knocking on one's door or it comes in the form of a mail being delivered. IN the case of mail delivery the homeowner has the option to state No Trespassing via a No Mailing List. But it's the same for when someone wants to come onto a property. The homeowner has the right to place a sign. The government does not have that right for each citizen.
I hope this helps clarify. But if you have more questions or want to continue to debate this on the grounds of the 1st Amendment, please let me know. Thank you
And I realize I might have gone off track from the door to door solicitation ordinances and how or how not they are legal.Here is a LINK for you to review and you can see any ordinance can be challenged for Constitutionality