I'm familiar with those details (as I've done countless hours researching topics related to this, as you may imagine :)) In a business development situation then, does it change the 'ownership' of the contacts found, that were brought to the business?
I don't mean to doubt what you just wrote, but I've read elsewhere opinions that because I was hired to do business development and develop in essence sales contacts for the business, then de facto because it was specially commissioned, then it belonged to the client. I suppose, to make this a productive question, are there any scenarios where sales contacts and accounts would belong to the client in an 'independent contractor' relationship? or (and just shooting off the hip here) maybe a defense from the client would be that at the time its doing business with the client is owned by them? that might not even make any sense, but just wondering if there's any exceptions to which I may fall under (based on specifics that I have no disclosed here in this public venue).
I mean I suppose I signed the agreements under the client's company name, and generally acted as a representative of the company. But apart from that, there was definitely not a written agreement.
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