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Richard
Richard, Attorney
Category: Business Law
Satisfied Customers: 54322
Experience:  32 years of experience practicing law and a businessman.
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we have a contract to provide serevices for 2 months- all monies were to be paid to us up

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we have a contract to provide serevices for 2 months- all monies were to be paid to us up front- we received about 40%- we were told the rest would be forthcoming but there has been none- our services are being used much less than the hiring company originally anticipated- are we entitled to the balance? by the way, we are in florida, the company is in china, the contract states any issues to be resolve3d are to be resolved in florida
Submitted: 5 years ago.
Category: Business Law
Expert:  Richard replied 5 years ago.

Good evening. Yes, you are entitled to be paid in full and you can sue them in Florida based on your contract and you will be awarded a judgment in your favor. The only issue you really face here is collecting your judgment. Unless they have some assets in the U.S. you can seize, such as a bank account, it will be very difficult for you to collect a judgment if all their assets are in China.

 

 

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Customer: replied 5 years ago.
Additional information needed. Facts: We were hired for a two month period and were to be paid in full up front. We were paid 40%. The hiring company chose to utilize us much less than they had expected when they entered into the contract. Contract term is up in 2 months. We are pressuring them for full payment. Now, they have asked us to specifically document the work we have done to get payment. Questions is: when parties enter into a contract but one party does not use the services of the other, are they still entitled to pay full amount? Do we need to prove what work we did or does the contract stand on its own?Thanks a bunch!
Customer: replied 5 years ago.
Additional information needed. Facts: We were hired for a two month period and were to be paid in full up front. We were paid 40%. The hiring company chose to utilize us much less than they had expected when they entered into the contract. Contract term is up in 2 months. We are pressuring them for full payment. Now, they have asked us to specifically document the work we have done to get payment. Questions is: when parties enter into a contract but one party does not use the services of the other, are they still entitled to pay full amount? Do we need to prove what work we did or does the contract stand on its own?Thanks a bunch!
Expert:  Richard replied 5 years ago.
Here's the thing as to why you are entitled to the full amount....because you either staffed up or turned down other work so that you could do the work they contracted to give you. As a result, you are entitled to what they promised to deliver because you relied to your detriment on the contractual obligations.
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