Thank You for the quick response. I did not sign anything with R beyond that initial meeting 1.5 - 2 years ago. At that time, I believe that I signed a form giving them permission to do a background screen on me.
However, A did offer to give R a % of my earnings on this engagement to compensate them for the introduction. Does this offer in some how 'imply' a contract and bind A to R even without a written contract?
One last clarification, please. Does "tortious interference" only apply to situations where a contract is in place? I do not have a contract with anyone associated with this situation. In fact, nobody involved in this conversation has a signed agreement of any sort between each other. It's all implied and oral.
The contract that "A" wants me to execute is for a short term 4-6 week engagement and "R" tried to place me in a permanent position. They are totally different! "R" did not identify the short term engagement, they only identified the full time employment opportunity. Which, during our process of discovering that role, they lied to me repeatedly.
However, I am afraid that if I move forward with my agreement with A that R will try to file some sort of an injunction preventing A from paying me directly. R is "Robert Half" and they have a solid history of suing over things like this (according to a few internet searches).
Given this brief dialog, what is your professional opinion about whether or not Robert Half will try to file an injunction on the 4-6 week engagement between my company and "A"? Keeping in mind that "R" offered "A" 50% of the contract amount as compensation for their introducing me with regards XXXXX XXXXX full time position.
I will accept your next answer. Thank you very much!!!
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