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My client's atty is stating (of course) that 60 days notice or not, I did not have the right to continue to bill for services not being performed. Therefore, wrongdoing. Can I be prosecuted? My philosophy on the whole thing was, no written notice of change (allowing me the opportunity to find replacement income), I would continue to bill the contractual amount until the contract expired. Invoices were submitted and consequently paid, by their accounting dept. After 2009 year end audit, I was informed that I was overbilling them. I had been billing the contracted rate for 11 months before their audit. So, it isn't a small number they are asking for. Is the law on contractual dispute cut and dry? Or is it a matter of opinion?