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It states the lease begins 8/26/08 and ends on 8/26/09. Tenant will pay rent in advance on the Tuesday of each week in the amout of $150. Tenant will pay the renatl amount for the entire term of the lease.
This is a contract that was already negotiated and signed by both parties. I had two contracts. One goes over the rent, how its paid, late fees, damage to the property etc..and on the second page under termination it states the following: This agreement and the tenancy hereby granted may be terminated at any time by either party hereto by giving to the other party not less than sixty days prior notice in writing.
The second contract states what I had written in the first paragraph and on the last page says: ENTIRE AGREEMENT: This is the entire agreement between the parties. It replaces and supersedes any and all oral agreements between the parties, as well as any other prior writings.
Does this mean she would be responsible for the rent for the term of the lease as stated and the other contract with the 60 day notice is void? Both contracts were signed on the same date.
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