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In the original bible was the word(s) homosexual or ...
Sent to General Experts December 06 09:06 AM

In the original bible was the word(s) homosexual or homosexuality there or in the hebrew/greek language?

Edited by Customer (name blocked for privacy) on December 6 2005 at 9:11 AM

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December 6 10:40 AM (1 hour and 34 minutes and 20 seconds later)
         
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Any reputable Bible scholar will tell you that when the original manuscripts were written in the languages of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, in none of these languages did the word "homosexual," or any viable translation of the word, exist.

The words “homosexual” and “homosexuality” do not appear in the Bible; at least they are absent from the original Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek texts. The authors of the Bible did not understand sexual orientation; this concept was only developed in the late 19th century. The writers had little or no comprehension of same-sex committed relationships. Their languages had no words for these concepts. Rather, they assumed that everyone was heterosexual, but that some heterosexuals engaged in sex with persons of the same gender.

For further reading, please see The Bible and Homosexuality

:::I hope this helps:::

Edited by vwgoddess_19 on December 6 2005 at 10:53 AM

Please kindly *ACCEPT* my answer and leave Positive *FEEDBACK* if it was helpful to you.



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December 7 8:29 AM (21 hours and 48 minutes and 52 seconds later)
         

Mandy,
The only problem that I have with your answer is then: What is Sodom & Gamora(sp). In the Roman culture at that time same sex relationship were very prevolant. What then is sexual immorality as stated in the bible in several places? (Ex:1Cor: 6:8-12). Was the source thatyou qouted unbiased? Thanks Deb
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December 7 7:09 PM (10 hours and 39 minutes and 59 seconds later)
         
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