Different contributor here. Your question probably should have been posted in the Bankruptcy Law category. Please permit me to assist.
If, as you say, there are no recorded liens against your property, as of the date of the filing of your bankruptcy, then the lender's purported mortgage would be an unsecured debt. And, if your bankruptcy was discharged with no distribution, that is what is known in the bankruptcy biz as a "no asset
case." This means that as a matter of law all unsecured debts are discharged entirely, and that would include any unrecorded mortgages as of the date of the filing of the bankruptcy petition
In short, based on your description of facts, you own your home free and clear, and the lender has no recourse against you, because the mortgages are discharged as unsecured debt.
Now, there is a possibility that the lender could contact the bankruptcy trustee and explain what has occurred. The trustee would likely ask the court to reopen the bankruptcy case and set aside the discharge order, because you would suddenly have a valuable asset that could be liquidated by the trustee to satisfy your unsecured creditors, one of whom is the bank.
Whether or not the bank will do this is unknown. But, at the moment, you appear to be free of your debts and the sole owner of your home. You may want to think about selling the property and moving to a jurisdiction with a large homestead exemption (e.g., Florida), where you could protect the proceeds of sale from a potential attack by the bank.
Hope this helps.