For clarification: If I understand your detailed opinion correctly, I am walking a fine line by asking the court to sanction the bank for only listing the discharged amount as an existing loan balance, when they are neither sending me statements for this account nor displaying any notation on that account balance (online) that it is delinquent, especially if the bank isn't reporting this balance (and I obviously have to verify this) to the credit-reporting agencies. Am I correct in assuming that if I can produce credit reports even displaying that balance as a debt for the court, as opposed to only having a printed page from the bank's website showing that balance, that I would have a significantly better chance of prevailing in convincing the court to sanction the bank?
I also assume that if sanctioned, the only direct impact to me is that the bank would only have to cease listing the debt as an existing balance in my name. But, if I do find this discharged debt also exists as a current debt in my credit record, how likely am I to prevail in proving monetary damages (for perhaps being charged higher interest rates due to a lesser credit score, or supposedly having a higher personal debt than I do in reality) against a bank as large as Wells Fargo?
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