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Thank you for the advice but the website says I can request more information, your answer raises further questions:
The first debt was to one provider. Years later we had a credit card to a different provider. The first provider then purchased the second provider, saw our name and cancelled the card and then handed it to a collection agency which I entered into a payment arrangement with. The question of the first debt remains - is it treated as a separate debt that once 12 years has past it is unrecoverable?
I know it is late & your answer if correct is excellent and I will rate it as such, I just need clarification on one fine point.
So you are saying the first debt stands alone because it was with the original provider (despite their motive for cancelling our card which I assume is that we did not pay the original debt despite the court order).
AND this remains the case even though they purchased the second provider.
I ask because somewhere along the line we may have signed a renewal contract with the first provider when they bought the second provider as a provision of the takeover and the continuing credit arrangement under new owner (in this case our first provider)?
Hi Patrick, sorry to extend this, there was no new specific agreement to merge the two debts, but in your experience is it common for "standard" fine print in credit card providers to try to do this, I don't remember any "all in" global clauses but there could have been.
Thanks Patrick, I thought so, the onus would be theirs and difficult to now after 13 years then pursue an old claim based on an unrelated takeover, have a nice night